1. With reference to ancient history, which of the given features is common among the columns of Delhi-Mirat, Lauriya-Araraj, Delhi-Topara, and Sankisa?

2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilisation:

1. Sindon was the area where cereals were cultivated.
2. Cereals were collected as taxes from peasants.
3. Ploughing of fields was practised in parts of Rajasthan.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

3. Which of the given literary works describes the detailed machinations of Chanakya against Chandragupta’s enemies?

4. Which of the following articles deals with the formation of a new state by uniting two or more states or parts of states?

5. Consider the following:

1. Lokottaravadins
2. Kukkutika
3. Caitika

How many of the above is/are the subsects under Mahasanghika School of Buddhism?

6. This festival is typically observed in the month of Bhadrapada, serves the purpose of purification, emphasising forgiveness, dedicated service, and devotion. It further concludes with a special festival known as Kshamavani. It is a festival of spiritual reform, symbolising the power of forgiveness in mind, words, and deeds. The festival refers to

7. Recently, Hoysala temples have been listed in the UNESCO World Heritage site. Which among the following are the features of these temples?

1. These have soapstone structures.
2. The temple at Belur was constructed by King Vishnuvardhana.
3. These temples follow a star-shaped plan or vimana.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

8. Which of the following terms correctly describes the significance of Konark Wheel?

9. Consider the following:

1. Rajagraha
2. Pava
3. Ramagrama

How many of the above-given sites are associated with stupas built over the relics of the Buddha?

10. These paintings are celebrated for their exquisite portrayal of nature, featuring lush vegetation, diverse flora and fauna, picturesque landscapes, rolling hills, dense jungles, and tranquil water bodies. The depictions of elephants are particularly renowned. These paintings also depict women as petite with distinctive facial features, reflecting the region’s unique cultural and aesthetic sensibilities. The given description refers to

11. Consider the following pairs:

 How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

12. Recently, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the abrogation of Article 370. Which of the following presidential orders was/were upheld as constitutionally valid?

1. CO 272
2. CO 273
3. CO 274

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

13. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Ghadar Movement was to oppose British rule in India.

Statement-II: The movement planned a non-violent agitation against British rule.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

14. Which among the following leaders are associated with the formation of the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party?

1. C.R. Das
2. Motilal Nehru
3. Lala Lajpat Rai
4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

15. Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhi-Irwin Pact:

1. It led to the return of the confiscated properties not yet sold.
2. It led to immediate release of all political prisoners whether convicted for violence or not.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

16. Consider the following statements regarding Quasars:

1. It is an extremely active and luminous type of active galactic nucleus.
2. All active galactic nuclei are quasars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

17. Which of the following correctly describes the term SuperBIT?

18. Consider the following:

1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Fabry’s disease
3. Endometrial cancer
4. Diabetes in preschool children

How many of the above-mentioned diseases can be included in orphan diseases?

19. Consider the following statements:

1. Cloud computing is a branch of artificial intelligence with capability of a machine to imitate intelligent human behaviour.
2. SaaS is a type of cloud computing service model.
3. Meghraj is the cloud computing initiative of the Indian government.

How many of the above statements are not correct?

20. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Trojans are asteroids which share an orbit with larger planets.

Statement-II: Trojans are also called earth crossers as their orbits are close to earth.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

21. Consider the following statements regarding lab-grown meat:

1. It is produced from animal stem cells.
2. It restricts the use of antibiotics in farms.
3. No country in the world has allowed the sale of lab-grown meat yet.

How many of the above statements are correct?

22. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The diabetes drug has feminising effect on male fish.

Statement-II This feminisation effect on male fish is because of endocrine-disrupting chemicals present in drugs.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

23. Dall-E3 is

24. Consider the following statements:

1. Only Potassium metal can float in cold water.
2. Both plant and animal cells are eukaryotic.
3. Renin release by the kidneys helps maintain plasma sodium levels, blood pressure, and blood volume.

How many of the given statements is/are correct?

25. Consider the following statements:

1. Melting a solid requires an input of energy at constant temperature.
2. A device in which heat measurement can be made is called a calorimeter.
3. During the sublimation process, both the solid and vapour states of a substance coexist in thermal equilibrium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

26. Which of the following programmes are associated with InSight Mission?

27. Consider the following statements regarding forever chemicals:

1. These are short-lived chemicals which can migrate to the soil, water, and air.
2. These are natural chemicals which can stay in animal body also.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

28. Recently, France’s highest court upheld the government’s ban on Abaya in public schools. Abaya

29. With respect to the logo for the G20 Summit 2023, consider the following statements:

1. The logo shows the link of the Earth with lotus symbolising India’s pro-planet approach to life.
2. The seven petals of the lotus in the logo represent the universal language of music’s seven notes.
3. The theme name Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam has been drawn from the ancient Sanskrit text of the Mundaka Upanishad.

How many of the given statements is/are correct?

30. The concepts of ‘Cramer–Rao inequality’ and ‘Rao–Blackwellization,’ mentioned in statistics and econometrics, were pioneered by

31. Which of the following is associated with the development of the world’s first retro-fit emission control device for diesel generators?

32. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to Chandrayaan-3 Mission?

33. With respect to India Smart Cities Award Contest (ISAC), 2022, consider the following statements:

1. It is organised by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Chandigarh has been awarded as the best union territory.
3. Madhya Pradesh has been adjudged the best smart city.

How many of the above statements are correct?

34. Which of the following are the applications of Quantum dots?

1. Mapping biological tissues
2. Photovoltaic cells
3. Cancer treatment
4. Security markers on currency

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

35. Consider the following statements:

1. He served as the program director of the Mars Orbiter Mission.
2. He was awarded with Padmashree award in 2016.
3. He is often referred to as ‘Moon Man of India’.
4. Recently, he has joined the Board of Directors of S.S. Innovations.

Which of the given personality’s description is given in the above statements?

36. Consider the following pairs with respect to Nobel Prize 2023:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

37. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to M.S. Swaminathan?

38. “It stands as the largest tropical wetland globally, and among the most unspoiled, extending across three South American nations and providing sustenance for millions. It constitutes approximately 3% of the total global wetland area, yet, regrettably, less than 5% of this wetland is under protection.” The description refers to

39. Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

40. Consider the following statements regarding particulate matter:

1. Direct sources of particulate matter include crushing or grinding operations.
2. PM 2.5 is capable of penetrating deep into the lungs whereas PM 10 lacks this capability.
3. They are indirectly formed when gases from burning fuels react with sunlight and water vapour.

How many of the above given statements is/are correct?

41. With reference to the tunicates, consider the following statements:

1. These are the marine invertebrate animals which exist in the world’s oceans mostly in shallow water from the polar regions to the tropics.
2. Due to their closest relation with vertebrates which include fish, mammals, and people, they may be critical to understand our evolutionary history.
3. Compounds from several tunicate species could be useful in medical treatments for diseases ranging from cancer to asthma.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

42. Consider the following statements:

1. Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 or DMH 11 is a genetically modified variety of mustard.
2. Hybridisation of genetically modified mustard includes crossing of two genetically dissimilar plant varieties from different species.
3. Mustard flowers are self-pollinating as they have only pistil as reproductive organ.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

43. Consider the following:

1. African lungfish
2. Crocodile
3. Desert ground squirrel
4. Chipmunks

How many of the above-mentioned animals is/are associated with the phenomenon of aestivation?

44. With reference to the vertical farming, consider the following statements:

1. It uses aeroponic systems to provide nutrition to plants.
2. The farming is mostly suitable for creepers like pumpkin.
3. Artificial intelligence is an important component of this farming.
4. There is a risk of water-borne diseases in this farming.

Select the answer using the code given below:

45. Which of the following is not a suitable condition for coral growth?

46. Which of the following is associated with Cryomesh Technology?

47. With reference to different types of adaptations, which among the following is an example of physiological adaptation?

48. Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to mangroves?

49. Which statement is not correct with respect to Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre?

50. Which of the following are the primary producers in the food chains of freshwater ecosystem?

1. Lilies
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Water hyacinths
4. Cattails
5. Fungi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

51. Consider the following statements with respect to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:

Statement-I: The Preamble is the part of the Indian Constitution.

Statement-II: The Preamble has legal effect independent of the other parts of the Constitution.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

52. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘citizen’ is nowhere defined in the Constitution.
2. If a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign country, the citizenship of the concerned person is subject to discretion of the President of India.
3. A citizen by birth only can become the head of the State.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

53. Which of the following provision of the Constitution came into force from November 26, 1949?

1. Citizenship
2. Elections
3. Fundamental rights
4. Oath of the President

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

54. The right to constitutional remedies in India is available to

55. Consider the following statements with respect to the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. Directive Principles of State Policy are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment.
2. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the government to work towards a just socio-economic order.
3. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment.
4. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.

How many statements given above is/are incorrect?

56. Consider the following statements with respect to Parliament:

1. Article 85 prescribes President to summon each House of Parliament.
2. During joint sitting of both Houses, the Bill is regarded to be passed by both Houses if it is approved by a majority of the members of both Houses present and voting.
3. The president can dissolve both Houses of Parliament as per the Constitution of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

57. Which of the following is/are advantages of simultaneous election of Look Sabha and State Assemblies?

1. Reduces financial expenditure on election
2. Hampers development work
3. Helps regional parties to gain recognition
4. Reduces administration workload

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

58. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian polity:

1. Article 1 states ‘India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States’.
2. Under Article 1, territory of India includes, states, union territories, and territories acquired by the Government of India.
3. There was uniformity in the Constituent Assembly with respect to the name of the country.
4. The Indian Federation is the result of an agreement among the states.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

59. With respect to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:

1. If there is a difference of opinion among the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by majority.
2. Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners can hold office for 5 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
3. The Constitution specifies the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

60. Consider the following statements with respect to judges of India:

1. As per the Constitution of India, the seniormost judge becomes the Chief Justice of India.
2. The salary, allowances, and pension of the High Court Judge are charged upon the consolidated fund of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

61. Consider the following statements with respect to Zero FIR:

1. It can be filed in any police station irrespective of where a crime occurred.
2. It is named so because no action can be taken on the case without the sanction of a magistrate.
3. It can be investigated by the police station where it is filed irrespective of jurisdiction.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

62. Consider the following statements with respect to mediation:

1. The Mediation Act 2023 seeks to volunteer for trying to settle civil or commercial disputes through mediation first, before approaching any court or tribunal.
2. Under the Mediation Act 2023, a Mediation Commission will be set up to monitor, maintain standards, and lay down the ethical code of conduct for mediators, service providers, and training institutions.
3. Under the Act, the proceedings are confidential and should be completed in 120 days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

63. Consider the following statements:

1. The database of birth and death would be maintained at the national level by the Registrar General of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Any Indian may get a birth or death certificate electronically or in any other form instead of obtaining extracts from the register.

Which of the above statements is/are the provisions of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023?

64. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Commission for Women was set up in 1992 to secure speedy justice to women in India.
2. The National Commission for Women has evolved the concept of Parivarik Mahila Lok Adalat.
3. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has defined ‘child’ as a person in the 0 to 16 years of age.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

65. The term co-operative has been mentioned in the Constitution under

1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. Fundamental Duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

66. Consider the following statements with respect to the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2023 (GNCTD Act):

1. The Act allows the state government to create laws and policies pertaining to the affairs of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, including the terms and conditions of officers and employees’ service.
2. The Act allows the set up of National Capital Civil Service Authority (NCCSA) which consists of the Delhi Chief Minister as chairperson, the Chief Secretary of Delhi as a member, and the principal Home Secretary of Delhi government as a member secretary.
3. The Chief Secretary as well as Home Secretary of the Delhi government is appointed by the Chief Minister of Delhi.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

67. Consider the following statements with respect to Panchayats:

1. All the members of Panchayats including chairperson are elected directly by the people at all three levels.
2. The 73rd amendment act provided 33 per cent reservation of seats for SCs and STs.
3. The minimum age for a candidate to fight an election at the Panchayati level is same as of the Lok Sabha member.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

68. Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

69. Consider the following fundamental rights:

1. Right to fair trial
2. Right to livelihood
3. Right to privacy
4. Right to travel inside the country

How many of the rights given above are included under Article 21?

70. Consider the following statements with respect to Census in India:

1. India first full-fledged census was held in 1862.
2. The census is conducted by Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

71. Which of the following statements correctly defines the Commercial Bill?

72. Consider the following statements with respect to the Reserve Bank of India:

1. The RBI acts as banker to both central as well as state governments.
2. It was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act of 1935.
3. The RBI controls fiscal as well as monetary policy of the country.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

73. Consider the following statements with respect to Article 370 of Indian Constitution:

1. It can be abolished by special majority of parliament under Article 368.
2. It can be abolished by the President’s order with the concurrence of the state constituent assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

74. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently in 2023, the World Bank released a report ‘A World of Debt’.

Statement-II: The report highlights that almost 30 per cent of global public debt is owed by developing countries in which 70 per cent is attributed to Brazil, China, and India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

75. Recently ‘Centralised Information Management System (CIMS)’ has been launched by the

76. Consider the following statements with respect to Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC):

1. ONDC was established under Section 8 of the Company Act as a non-profit organisation.
2. The initiative will help to accelerate and improve the growth of startups in India.
3. Quality Council of India is one of the founding members of the ONDC.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

77. The Reserve Bank of India released the Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in digital lending. These guidelines are applicable to

1. Commercial banks.
2. State Co-operative banks.
3. Central Co-operative banks.
4. Non-Banking Financial companies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

78. Consider the following statements with respect to Logistics Performance Index report 2023:

1. The report has been released by World Trade Organization.
2. India’s rank has been improved from 44th to 38th.
3. India has improved on 4 out of total 6 indicators.
4. A total of 139 countries has been ranked in the 2023 report.

How many statements given above are correct?

79. With respect to Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic), consider the following statements:

1. The Food Corporation of India uses the Open Market Sale Scheme to regularly sell surplus wheat and rice stocks at pre-determined prices.
2. In the case of wheat, an eligible bidder may bid for a minimum of 10 metric tonnes (MT) and a maximum of 100 MT.
3. In the case of rice, an eligible bidder may bid a minimum of 10 MT and a maximum of 1000 MT.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

80. With respect to National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID), consider the following statements:

1. NaBFID was established under the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2001.
2. It was established to address the long-term infrastructure financing requirements in India.
3. The institution was regulated as well as supervised by the RBI.

How many statements given above are correct?

81. The Skill Impact Bond is an initiative of

82. The value of the Special Drawing Rights (SDR) of International Monetary Fund is based on the

1. US dollar
2. Euro
3. Chinese renminbi
4. Russian ruble
5. British pound sterling

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

83. The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) Report is published by

84. Consider the following statements with respect to the landlord port model:

1. The landlord port model involves a publicly governed port authority acting as both a regulatory body and landlord.
2. Private companies handle port operations like cargo-handling under landlord port model.
3. Kandla port becomes the first 100 per cent landlord major port of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

85. Consider the following statements with respect to Game of Skill and Game of Chance:

1. A game of skill is one in which success is dependent on the player’s knowledge, attention, training, experience, and adroitness.
2. A game of chance is one in which the outcome is determined mainly by some random factor.
3. The recent introduction of GST on online gaming covers both game of chance as well as game of skill.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

86. With respect to wind energy in India, consider the following statements:

1. India has third highest wind power installed capacity in the World after the US and China.
2. With regard to renewable energy resources, wind energy has the maximum weightage of installed capacity in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

87. Consider the following statements with respect to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR):

1. CSR is enacted under section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 by the Ministry of Commerce.
2. A company earning net profits of 5 crores, or more is one of the criteria to qualify for CSR under the Companies Act.
3. CSR also applies to Section 8 companies having specified networth, profit, or turnover under the Companies Act, 2013.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

88. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to Article 35A of the Constitution?

89. Consider the following statements with respect to Offshore Mineral Resources:

1. Under the Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 a composite licence has been introduced for both production as well as exploration.
2. With the single composite licence, the maximum area that can be used for carrying out production is 30 minutes latitude by 30 minutes longitude.
3. Under the act, the lease period for production has increased from 30 years to 100 years.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

90. Consider the following statements:

1. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs fixes the minimum buffer norms for yearly basis.
2. The procurement of pulses for buffer stock is done by the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) only.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

91. Consider the following pair:

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

92. Inselbergs, Demoiselles, Zeugen, and Yardangs are terms related to

93. Consider the following statements:

1. Israel faces Mediterranean Sea in the west and Red Sea in the east.
2. The surrounding neighbour of the Israel includes Jordan, Syria, Lebanon, and Iraq.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

94. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:  Article 4 of the Constitution clearly states that any territorial change made under Article 3 would never be considered as a Constitutional Amendment, under Article 368.

Statement-II: The laws regarding territorial changes made under Article 3 can be passed by the Parliament by a simple majority following the ordinary legislative policies.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

95. Consider the following clouds:

1. Cirrus
2. Cumulonimbus
3. Altostratus
4. Nimbostratus

Which of the clouds given above is/are responsible for precipitation?

96. Consider the following characteristics of soil:

1. The soil is rich in potash, but poor in nitrogen, phosphorous, and humus.
2. They are formed due to decomposition of crystalline rocks.
3. Their colour becomes yellow in a hydrated form.

Which of the following soil is mentioned in the above given characteristics?

97. Recently, X went to boating in five different lakes, namely, Loktak, Umiam, Kolleru, Vembanad, and Pulicat. Which of the following states did X visit?

98. Consider the followings statements with respect to the state of Assam:

1. It is known as ‘land of red river and blue hills.’
2. It is the largest northeastern state in terms of population as well as in terms of area.
3. Assam has the single largest tea growing area in the world, constituting around one-seventh of the global tea production.
4. Two sites, namely, the Kaziranga National Park and the Manas Wildlife Sanctuary of Assam are in the list of UNESCO World Heritage sites.

How many statements given above are correct?

99. Consider the following irrigation and multipurpose projects: 

 How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

100. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The recently announced India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) project will consist of Railroad, Ship-to-Rail networks, and Road transport route.

Statement-II: In the Eurasian area, IMEC is considered as a potential response to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?