1. Which of the following are eligible to participate in the election of the Vice President of India?

1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha
2. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
3. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
4. Elected members of the Delhi and Puducherry legislative assemblies
5. Elected members of state legislative assemblies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

2. The statement, ‘Indian Constitution establishes a secular state’ means that

1. the State treats all religions equally.
2. the freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
3. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction.
4. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

3. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the Australian Constitution?

1. Concurrent List
2. Freedom of trade and commerce
3. Election of members of the Rajya Sabha
4. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
5. Procedure for amendment of the Constitution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

4. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The word ‘sovereign’ was mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution from the time it was drafted.

Statement-II: As a sovereign state, India can either acquire foreign land or give up a portion of its territory to a foreign state.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

5. Consider the following statements with respect to powers of the Rajya Sabha:

1. A resolution for removal of vice-president can initiate in the Rajya Sabha only.
2. It can authorise Parliament to make law on a subject enumerated in the State List.
3. Only the Rajya Sabha can discontinue a national emergency by passing a resolution to that effect.
4. The proclamation of all three kinds of emergency needs the approval of the Rajya Sabha.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

6. Which of the following statements correctly defines a Certificate of Deposit?

7. The term ‘primary deficit’ is defined as

8. Consider the following statements with respect to the purchasing power parity (PPP) method:

Statement-I: The PPP is price relative that shows the ratio of the prices in national currencies of the same good or service in different countries.

Statement-II: The PPP method adjusts the nominal gross domestic product (GDP) or gross national income (GNI) figure to account for the differences in the purchasing power.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

9. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Sustainable Development Solutions Network publishes the World Happiness Report.

Statement-II: The effectiveness of a government significantly impacts human happiness, with its capacity measured by its fiscal, collective, and legal capabilities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

10. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Harrod-Domar Model of Growth, economic growth depends on the amount of capital that is available for investment and that the rate of capital accumulation is proportional to the rate of savings.
2. The Lewis Model of Economic Development assumes that underdeveloped economies consist largely of ‘subsistence sectors’ in which the supply of labour is very large and the amount of capital invested per worker is very low.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

11. “It is not from the benevolence of the butcher, the brewer, or the baker that we expect our dinner, but from their regard to their own self-interest.” The quotation is given by

12. Consider the following doctrines of Jainism:

1. Brahmacharya
2. Ahimsa
3. Satya
4. Asteya
5. Aparigraha

Which of the doctrines given above is/are added to Jainism by Mahavira?

13. Consider the following Mahajanpadas:

1. Gandhara
2. Magadha
3. Matsya
4. Panchala
5. Assaka

Which of the following options depicts the correct order of Mahajanpadas from North to South?

14. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

15. Consider the following statements with respect to the Chola Empire:

1. Rajaraja I is the first Chola ruler to venture banks of Ganges in the north.
2. Rajendra I founded the capital city of Gangaikondacholapuram where he received the title of Gangaikonda.
3. The basic unit of administration is ‘Nadu’ consisting of a cluster of villages.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

16. Consider the following pairs regarding the Indus Valley civilisation:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Plate tectonic theory has been accepted as the most valid explanation for causes of earthquakes.

Statement-II: As per the theory, Earth is composed of solid plates having either continental crust or oceanic crust or even both continental-oceanic crust.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

18. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

19. Consider the following countries:

1. Iran
2. Azerbaijan
3. Russia
4. Uzbekistan
5. Kazakhstan
6. Turkmenistan

Which of the above countries share boundaries with the Caspian Sea?

20. Lapies, Dolines, and Poljes landforms are associated with

21. Consider the following layers of atmosphere:

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Thermosphere

In which of the layers mentioned above, does the temperature increase with height?

22. Consider the following:

1. Tropical region between 25-degrees North and 25-degrees South latitude
2. Temperature below 10 degrees Celsius
3. Deeper waters (more than 200–250 feet)
4. Sediment-free water
5. Ocean currents

How many of the conditions given above are favourable for the growth of coral reefs?

23. Consider the following statements with respect to Goods and Services Tax (GST):

Statement-I: The GST replaced various indirect taxes, such as excise duty, service tax, and VAT, ensuring uniformity across India and eliminating the cascading effect of taxes.

Statement-II: The GST operates under a dual structure, comprising the Central GST (CGST) levied by the central government and the state GST (SGST) levied by the state governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

24. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission Act, 2023:

1. The act makes amendment to the existing Indian Nursing Council Act, 1947.
2. The central government will establish the National Nursing and Midwifery Commission as per the new act.
3. The head office of the National Nursing Midwifery Commission is located in Mumbai.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

25. Consider the following features:

1. The Co-operative Election Authority has been established to conduct and supervise elections to the boards of multi-state co-operative societies.
2. A Co-operative Rehabilitation, Reconstruction, and Development Fund will be established to revive sick multi-state co-operative societies, funded by profitable contributions from these societies.
3. State co-operative societies are prohibited from merging into existing multi-state co-operative societies.

Which of the features given above belong to Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act 2023?

26. With respect to the Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

1. The unregistered farms can be charged with a fine of up to one lakh or imprisonment of up to three years under the Amendment Act.
2. The Amendment Act, 2023 envisages the ‘Polluter Pays Principle’, requiring aquaculture unit owners to be held accountable for any environmental damage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

27. With reference to the “domiciles” of Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

Anyone could be a domicile of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir if

1. they had resided therein for 10 years.
2. they had studied there for seven years and appeared for Class 10/12 examination in an educational institution in Jammu and Kashmir.
3. they had registered as migrants by the Relief and Rehabilitation Commissioner.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

28. Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation Commission with respect to re-organisation of Jammu and Kashmir:

1. It is based on Census of 2011.
2. It awarded six more seats to Kashmir region as against only one seat to the Jammu region.
3. It also reserved nine Assembly seats for the Scheduled Tribes (STs) and seven for the Schedule Castes (SCs).

How many of the statements given above are correct?

29. The Jharniyojan portal is related to the

30. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the 2022 Bihar Caste-based Survey data?

31. Which of the following are correct with regard to the Gandhara School of Art?

1. Buddha’s figure appears here for the first time.
2. Its craftsmen used white stone to make images.
3. It was also known as Greco-Buddhist art.
4. It represents the important religions, such as Brahmanism, Jainism, and Buddhism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

32. Consider the following statements with respect to Medieval India:

1. Ahmed Shah I shifted the capital of Gujarat from Patan to Ahmedabad.
2. Mustafabad was founded by Muzaffar Shah.
3. The court poet of Mahmud Begarha was Udayaraja.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

33. In the context of Indian history, the term ‘Araghatta’ means

34. Which of the following were the main features of the Mughal land revenue system?

1. It varied according to the crop grown.
2. It varied from region to region.
3. It varied according to farming bids received.
4. It varied according to individual contracts with village headmen.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

35. With respect to medieval India, the term ‘qalandar’ refers to

36. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Shivaji failed to establish an enduring Maratha state.

Statement-II: The major causes were caste quarrels and status-based sub-divisions within Hindu society.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

37. The term ‘Pietra Dura’ refers to

38. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Gandhi decided to suspend the non-cooperation movement in the early 1922.

Statement-II: Certain violent incidents at Chauri Chaura convinced Gandhi that the movement had best be suspended.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

39. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (Delhi Pact), 1932 agreed on the

1. immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted for violence.
2. return of confiscated land not yet sold to third parties.
3. right to make salt for personal consumption in coastal villages.
4. public enquiry into police excess.
5. continuance of the civil disobedience movement by the Congress.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

40. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

41. The poems in ‘Kitab-i-Nauras’, designed to be sung in different ragas, were composed by

42. Consider the following statements with respect to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India:

1. Andaman and Nicobar are separated by ten-degree channel.
2. Minicoy island is the smallest island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
3. Saddle peak is the highest peak among the Andaman Mountains situated in the south Andaman.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

43. Consider the following statements with respect to drainage system of India:

1. Compared to Himalayan rivers, peninsular rivers have old topography.
2. Krishna river passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh only.
3. Mandovi and Zuari are the two important rivers of Goa.
4. Subansiri, Manas, and Sankosh are the major right-bank tributaries of River Brahmaputra.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

44. Consider the following statements with respect to minerals in India:

1. Most of the coal used in India is bituminous for electricity generation.
2. Pyrolusite and Rhodonite are major ores of iron.
3. Magnetite and siderite are the major ores of manganese.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

45. Consider the following statements with respect to India Forest Report 2021:

1. Top three states showing increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha.
2. In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top two states are Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
3. Total mangrove cover in the country also shows an increasing trend compared to the previous assessment of 2019.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

46. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

47. In August 2023, ‘Floodwatch’ mobile application was launched by the

48. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

49. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Advanced biofuels have low carbon dioxide emissions or high greenhouse gas reduction and are long-term sustainable alternative to fossil fuels.

Statement-II: These fuels are produced from lignocellulosic feedstocks, non-food energy crops, animal dung, or industrial waste streams.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

50. Consider the following statements with respect to Water Reuse Certificates (WRCs):

1. Wastewater Reuse Certificates are a market-based mechanism developed by the 2030 Water Resources Group.
2. Under WRC trading system, an independent implementation agency is set up to register water users across various sectors and set individual targets for water reuse.
3. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has released a report on water trading mechanism to promote reuse of treated wastewater in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

51. The ‘One Nation One Fertilizer’ scheme was implemented by the

52. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Ministry of External Affairs for the first time has released Indian Arctic policy, titled ‘India and the Arctic: building a partnership for sustainable development’.

Statement-II: The Arctic region holds significant importance for India, especially in science, climate change, environment research, and geopolitical-strategic considerations.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

53. Consider the following statements with respect to rare earth elements (REEs):

1. They have high electrical conductivity.
2. They include light and heavy rare earth metals.
3. Lanthanum is a light REE while samarium is a heavy one.
4. Neodymium is used in mobile phones and medical equipment.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

54. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The primary requirement of any item to be traded is that it should be a ‘commodity’ having economic value.

Statement-II: In India, water is considered as a commodity and possesses significant economic value.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

55. Consider the following statements with respect to Chandrayaan-3:

1. Chandrayaan-3 consists of an indigenous Lander module, Propulsion module and a Rover.
2. It was launched by launch vehicle Mark-III (LVM3) from Sriharikota.
3. The LVM3 is a three-stage vehicle consisting of two solid strap-on motors, one liquid core stage, and a high thrust cryogenic upper stage engine.
4. ChaSTE is used on a lander to measure the thermal properties of the lunar surface near the polar region.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

56. A tiny non-charged fundamental particle having half spin travels at the speed of light and in straight line from its source, rarely interacting with other matter. Outnumbering all atoms in the universe, it is only affected by gravity and the weak force. It is also known as ‘ghost particle.’

The above paragraph is the correct description of

57. Consider the following compounds:

1. Aspartame
2. Neotame
3. Triclosan
4. Thaumatin
5. Sorbitol

Which of the chemical compounds given above are artificial sweeteners?

58. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Quantum computing is a multidisciplinary area that uses quantum physics to tackle complicated problems more quickly than traditional computers.

Statement-II: It employs two key quantum physics principles, namely, superposition and entanglement for faster outcome.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

59. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian missiles:

1. Trishul is a surface-to-air missile.
2. Prithvi is a surface-to-surface missile.
3. Shaurya is an air-to-air missile.
4. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

60. The mission of Hayabusa2 meant to collect samples from asteroid Ryugu was launched by the

61. Consider the following diseases:

1. Syphilis
2. Gonorrhoea
3. Chlamydia
4. Trichomoniasis
5. Hepatitis B
6. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
7. HIV

Which of the diseases given above are curable sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

62. With respect to biotechnology, BEOSP uses

63. Consider the following statements with respect to the Shanghai Cooperation Summit (SCO) 2023:

1. The member states agreed to declare 2024 as the SCO Year of Environment.
2. All member states reaffirm their support for China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
3. The member states agreed on Islamic Republic of Iran’s admittance to the SCO as a full member state.
4. The summit theme is ‘Partnership for Mutually Accelerated Growth, Sustainable Development, and Inclusive Multilateralism’.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

64. Consider the following countries:

1. Argentina
2. Chile
3. Egypt
4. Iraq
5. Iran
6. Saudi Arabia

Which of the above countries are the new members of BRICS (as per 2023 Summit)?

65. Consider the following statements with respect to G20:

1. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat.
2. The 2022 Summit was headed by Italy.
3. The theme of the 2022 Summit was ‘Recover Together, Recover Stronger.’
4. The 2024 Summit will be held in Brazil, followed by South Africa in 2025.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

66. Which of the following countries are signatories of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC)?

1. United Kingdom
2. Germany
3. Italy
4. France
5. Saudi Arabia
6. United Arab Emirates

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

67. Consider the following agreements:

1. Foreign Investment Promotion and Protection Agreement (FIPA)
2. Air Services Agreement
3. Nuclear Cooperation Agreement

How many of the agreements given above are signed between India and Canada?

68. The Camp David Accords were signed between

69. Consider the following statements with respect to the Asian Games 2023:

1. The event was hosted by the Peoples Republic of China.
2. India ranked third after China and Japan in terms of total number of medals.
3. There were total nine sports categories in which athletes participated.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

70. With respect to the ICC Cricket World Cup 2023, consider the following statements:

1. In case of match tie, there will be a super over, if super over also concluded in a tie, then the winner will be decided via boundary-count rule.
2. In the event of a league stage washout, the two teams will receive a point each, as there are no reserve days for the league stage, but reserve days are available for both the semifinals and final.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

71. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: UNICEF released a report, titled ‘Children Displaced in a Changing Climate…’ in 2023.

Statement-II: Almost 50 per cent of recorded child displacements were driven by floods and storms as per the report.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

72. Consider the following statements with respect to the Global Entrepreneurship Monitor (GEM) Report 2023–24:

1. The United Arab Emirates tops the GEM’s National Entrepreneurship Context Index (NECI) with a 7.7 score.
2. Between 2021 and 2023, India had decreased ratings for entrepreneurial education at school from “much better than satisfactory” to “less than satisfactory”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

73. Consider the following:

1. Different proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the government
2. Interest and dividend on investments made by the government
3. Expenditure on running of government and various services
4. Market loans raised by the government

How many of the options given above are covered under the revenue side of the budget?

74. Consider the following statements regarding the Advance Pricing Agreement (APA):

Statement-I: The APA is an agreement between a taxpayer and the tax authority.

Statement-II: It determines the transfer pricing methodology for pricing the taxpayer’s international transactions for future years providing certainty to the taxpayers.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

75. Which of the following correctly defines the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

76. Estimation of national income in India is difficult due to

1. illiteracy.
2. non-monetary transactions.
3. inflation.
4. people holding multiple jobs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

77. Which of the following committees was assigned to recommend reforms in the insurance sector?

78. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) was created to increase agricultural output, particularly in rainfed areas, by focusing on integrated farming, water usage efficiency, soil health management, and resource synergy.

Statement-II: The NMSA’s mandate is derived from the Sustainable Agriculture Mission, one of the eight missions listed in the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

79. Consider the following statements with respect to Soil Health Card scheme:

1. The scheme is implemented through the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
2. It contains the status of soil with respect to four parameters, namely, macro-nutrients (N, P, K) and secondary nutrient (S).
3. The scheme monitors farmers’ soil and provides them with a formatted report in every three years.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

80. Which of the following correctly defines the term ‘Trade Dress’?

81. Consider the following statements regarding non-banking financial companies (NBFCs):

Statement-I: Systemically important NBFCs are those with assets worth  500 crores or more as per the latest audited balance sheet.

Statement-II: The reasoning behind this classification is that the activity of such NBFCs would have an impact on the general financial stability of the country.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

82. Consider the following statements with respect to sovereign gold bonds (SGBs):

1. SGBs are government securities issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India, as a substitute for holding physical gold.
2. SGBs require the minimum investment of one gram and a maximum subscription limit is 5 kg for individuals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

83. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs)?

1. Inflation-indexed bonds (IIBs) were issued in the name of capital indexed bonds (CIBs) in 1997.
2. In comparison to CIBs, IIBs will provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.
3. In India, the consumer price index (CPI) is used for inflation protection in IIBs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

84. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

85. Consider the following statements with respect to Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility (INRF) Scheme:

1. The INRF scheme is a two-way cross-border remittance programme under the national electronic fund transfer (NEFT) that allows payments to be sent from India to Nepal and vice versa.
2. The scheme was launched by the collaboration of the Ministry of Finance and the Ministry of External Affairs.
3. There is no limit on remittances if the sender is maintaining account with any NEFT-enabled bank-branch in India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

86. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, the election of members of Parliament is categorised into territorial representation and proportional representation.

Statement-II: Territorial representation is chosen for the Lok Sabha elections over proportional representation as proportional representation increases the significance of the party system and reduces the scope for voters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

87. Consider the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):

1. The office of the CAG was established in 1919 under British rule as Accountant General to the Government of India.
2. In India, the power of the CAG is more as compared to the CAG of England.
3. CAG is the member of the parliament in England but not in India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

88. Consider the following statements with respect to public accounts committee:

1. The term of members of the committee is one year.
2. The president appoints the committee’s chairman from among its members on the advice of the prime minister.
3. All the members of the committee are selected from the Lok Sabha.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

89. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court is in charge of upholding and interpreting the Constitution to ensure that every person has access to their fundamental rights.

Statement-II: The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction over disputes between the Centre and any state or between two or more states.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

90. With respect to the S.R. Bommai Judgment, on which of the following grounds presidential proclamation can be subject to judicial review?

1. Illegality
2. Mala fide
3. Petition
4. Irrationality

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

91. Consider the following statements with respect to family courts:

1. They are established by the central government with the consultation of the Supreme Court.
2. The Family Courts Act, 1984 mandates the central government to establish a family court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Vibrant Villages Programme is a central sector scheme.

Statement II: The objective of the programme is comprehensive development and improving quality of life of people of villages in northern bordering states of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, and Union Territory of Ladakh.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

93. Consider the following statements:

1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is in charge of Project Tiger and many tiger reserves.
2. The NTCA is a statutory body established under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
3. The Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve (DKTR) is the 54th tiger reserve in the country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

94. The sanctuary is a protected area in the Himalayan foothills in Arunachal Pradesh, known for its vast array of birds and wildlife. The sanctuary is named after the Indian army regiment stationed there, and visitors can see abandoned military posts scattered along the road. The sanctuary is home to a jeep track that passes through temperate cloud forests, dense bamboo strands, and broadleaved evergreen forests covering a large altitudinal range. It is considered as one of the top birding destinations in the world, with some species found nowhere else in the country.

The above-mentioned paragraph is the correct description of the

95. e-SAHAJ portal is related to

96. Consider the following statements with respect to turtles and tortoises:

1. Tortoises are mostly reptiles.
2. Tortoises are mostly carnivores.
3. Tortoises are land creatures.
4. All tortoises are turtles.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

97. Which of the following correctly defines ‘biological spectrum’ of a place?

98. Consider the following statements with respect to bioremediation:

1. It converts food waste into compost without adding fertilisers.
2. Mycoremediation is a form of bioremediation which relies on bacteria of bioremediation from.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

99. Which of the following statements correctly defines ‘carbon footprint’?

100. Consider the following statements with respect to biosurfactants:

1. They are surface-active substances synthesised by living cells either on cell surface or secreted extracellularly.
2. Micro-organisms like bacteria and yeasts are known to synthesise surface-active agents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?