1. With reference to the planetary boundaries, consider the following statements:

1. Planetary boundaries are a framework that identifies nine processes that are critical for maintaining the stability and resilience of Earth system as a whole. 
2. As per the recent study, namely, Earth Beyond Six of Nine Planetary Boundaries, six out of nine planetary boundaries have been breached by humans.
3. The nine boundaries—climate change, biosphere integrity, freshwater change, land system change, biogeochemical flows, novel entities, stratospheric ozone depletion, atmospheric aerosol loading, and ocean acidification—represent the component of Earth system critically affected by anthropogenic activities and relevant to Earth’s overall state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Fujiwhara effect occurs when two hurricanes or cyclones, spinning in the same direction, pass close enough to each other, and begin an intense dance around their common centre.
2. Atmospheric rivers are vast airborne currents carrying dense moisture and hanging low in the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3. With reference to the ocean current, consider the following statements:

1. Ocean current in the northern hemisphere is much stronger than that found in the southern hemisphere.
2. The Gulf Stream is stronger than the California Current, which is located on the eastern edge of the Pacific Ocean.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4. The Namib Desert

1. spans the western coast of southern Africa and touches the part of the countries of Angola and Namibia.
2. has the curious circles, known as fairy rings, that are most noticeable and are now thought to have been created by termite.
3. exists for at least 55 million years, and is one of the oldest deserts in the world.
4. has some of the world’s tallest sand dunes over 300 metres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

5. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

6. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian drainage system:

1. Zanskar, Dras, Shyok, and Spiti are the major tributaries of the Indus river.
2. The Ramganga, Ghaghara, Gandak, and Son are the major left-bank tributaries of the River Ganga.
3. The Godavari is the largest peninsular river which originated in the Nashik district in the Western Ghats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP):

1. This project involves transfer of water from the Betwa to Ken river through the construction of the Daudhan Dam.
2. The project benefits the water-starved Bundelkhand region, spread across the states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

8. Consider the following statements with respect to mineral resources in India:

1. Diamonds are mainly mined in Panna in Madhya Pradesh.
2. Thorium is mainly found in Kerala.
3. Quartz is mainly found in Jammu and Kashmir.
4. Silver is found in Rajasthan.

How many statements given above are correct?

9. Arrange the following ports of India from North to South:

1. Haldia
2. Kandla
3. Paradip
4. Visakhapatnam
5. Mumbai

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Cold and warm currents meet, creating conditions favourable for plankton growth.
2. The fish of these waters are highly palatable as human food.
3. There is a ready market in the land masses of the zone.
4. The existence of submarine plateaus helps in the growth of fish population.

Which of the following is/are the reasons for the major fishing areas confined to the temperate zone?

11. Consider the following statements with respect to Government of India Act, 1935:

1. The act introduced the concept of dyarchy in the provinces.
2. Direct elections were introduced for the first time.
3. There is a provision for the establishment of federal court and federal bank under the act.
4. The act envisaged for All-India Federation which never came into being.

How many statements given above are correct?

12. In what context Somnath Lahiri in the Constituent Assembly said, “That is very good, sir—bold words, noble words”?

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 370 was intended as an interim arrangement until the Constituent Assembly of the State was formed.
2. It was adopted because the state was experiencing war conditions.
3. It was adopted because of exploitation of natural resources.

Which of the statements given above depict the temporary nature of Article 370?

14. Consider the following Directive Principles of States Policy (DPSP):

1. State to ensure equal justice and free legal aid to the poor
2. Living wage for workers
3. Participation of workers in management of industries
4. Promotion of cooperative societies

Which of the DPSP given above were added later by amendments in the Indian Constitution?

15. Consider the following pairs:

 How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

16. With respect to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution mentions the concept of social justice.

Statement-II: The concept of the Welfare State envisaged in the Directive Principles of State Policy ensures the social justice.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

17. Consider the following statements regarding Article 370:

1. It limited the power of the Indian Parliament to make laws on defence and communications for Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
2. Only Article 1 of the Constitution was applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
3. The president can make change in Article 370 only with the approval of the Constituent Assembly of J&K and not to its legislative assembly.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

18. With respect to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. The speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
2. The speaker submits his resignation to the deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha.
3. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the speaker vacates his/her office immediately after the dissolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

19. Consider the following statements with respect to Indian Parliament:

1. The normal day business in Parliament starts with the Question Hour.
2. The Question Hour is followed by the Zero Hour, which is originally an Indian origin practice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

20. Consider the following statements with respect to the Emergency in India:

1. The 42nd constitutional amendment replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ with ‘armed rebellion’ in context of national emergency.
2. Every proclamation of national emergency must be laid before Parliament and approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
3. No proclamation of financial emergency has been made so far in India.
4. Emergency enacted under Article 356 has a maximum limit of three years except for special circumstances.

How many statements given above are correct?

21. Consider the following statements with respect to election in India.

Statement-I: The concept of One Nation, One Election was recently in news, and a committee was formed regarding the same under the chairmanship of the former president, Ram Nath Kovind.

Statement-II: In 2018, the Law Commission sent a draft report to the government and suggested the electoral code to allow for the simultaneous elections.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

22. Indrajit Gupta Committee is related to

23. Consider the following aspects of Indian Constitution:

1. Parliamentary system of government
2. Single citizenship
3. Fundamental rights
4. Independence of the judiciary

Which of the aspects given above are taken from the US Constitution?

24. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:

1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, and Zoroastrians as minorities.
2. The first statutory National Commission for Minorities was set up in 1993.
3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Buddhists.
4. The Constitution of India recognises both linguistic and religious minorities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

25. Consider the following categories of film certification:

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

26. Which of the following countries in India’s neighbourhood has set up the Truth and Reconciliation Commission?

1. Pakistan
2. Bangladesh
3. Sri Lanka
4. Nepal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

27. Which of the following correctly defines ‘dark pattern’?

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 170 of the Indian Constitution mentioned that delimitation exercise in India should occur on the basis of 2001 Census or await the first census after 2026.
2. Jammu and Kashmir delimitation exercise is based on the 2011 Census.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

29. Consider the following statements with respect to Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA):

1. Any action taken by such individual or association that leads to the cession of a part of Indian territory, questions sovereignty of India, or disrupts integrity of India is defined as ‘unlawful activity’.
2. Cases filed under the UAPA can be investigated by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) only.
3. The provision of the act applies to Indian citizens only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

30. Consider the following agencies:

1. Central Board of Direct Taxes
2. Intelligence Bureau
3. National Investigation Agency
4. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
5. Directorate of Signal Intelligence

Which of the agencies mentioned above have the right to tap phones?

31. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In September 2023, the Reserve Bank of India announced that it would discontinue the incremental cash reserve ratio (I-CRR) in a phased manner.

Statement-II: Based on an assessment of current and evolving liquidity conditions, it has been decided that the amounts impounded under the I-CRR would be released in stages so that system liquidity is not subjected to sudden shocks and money markets function in an orderly manner.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

32. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, the RBI asked fintech entities to form a self-regulatory organisation (SRO).

Statement-II: Those entities who are interested in being recognised as SROs will have to apply to the RBI.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

33. With respect to the Rajasthan Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

1. The act is the first-ever legislation regarding gig workers in India.
2. The aggregators must register themselves with the central government under the act.
3. Under the act, the workers will have access to general and specific social security schemes notified by the state government.
4. After Rajasthan, the Karnataka government announced an insurance scheme for the welfare of gig workers.

How many statements given above are correct?

34. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: According to the report, Working Without Borders: The Promise and Peril of Online Gig Work, the demand for gig workers on digital platforms increased in developed as well as developing countries.

Statement-II: The report was released by the World Economic Forum.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

35. Which of the following is/are potential benefit with respect to restriction on imports in an economy?

1. It will promote and protect domestic industries.
2. It will make imports cheaper.
3. It will help in reduction of current account deficit of the economy.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

36. Consider the following options:

1. Cab driver
2. Food delivery
3. Plumbing
4. Beauty services
5. Graphic designing

Which of the options mentioned above are categorised as medium-skilled work?

37. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Ayushman Bhav’ campaign:

Statement-I: The campaign aims to achieve 100 per cent health scheme coverage in every village/town of country.

Statement-II: It involves a set of interventions that include Ayushman Apke Dwar 3.0, Ayushman Sabhas, Ayushman Melas, and medical camps by medical colleges to achieve its aim.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

38. The revised National Curriculum Framework, under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, will be devised into

1. National Curriculum Framework for Early Childhood Care and Education (NCFECCE).
2. National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCFSE).
3. National Curriculum Framework for Teacher Education (NCFTE).
4. National Curriculum Framework for Adult Education (NCFAE).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

39. CAFE standards are related to

40. Consider the following statements with respect to liquid funds:

1. They are short-term market instruments, similar to mutual funds.
2. They offer easy liquidity, and their return is guaranteed similar to fixed deposits.
3. The funds bring long-term capital gains with tax indexation, if held for more than three years.

How many statements given above are correct?

41. Which of the following correctly defines the term ‘Tacitus Trap’?

42. Which of the books mentioned below is/are written by Claudia Goldin, who won the Nobel Prize in Economics?

1. Understanding the Gender Gap
2. The Race between Education and Technology
3. Career & Family: Women’s Century-Long Journey toward Equity
4. The Origin of the Family, Private Property, and the State

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

43. Consider the following pairs:

 How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

44. Consider the following statements with respect to Money aggregates:

1. M0 consists of currency in circulation, bankers’ deposits, and other deposits with the RBI.
2. M1 consists of M0 and demand deposits with the banking system, traveller’s cheques, etc.
3. M1 is also known as broad money, while M3 is called narrow money.

How many statements given above are correct?

45. With respect to non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), consider the following statements:

1. NBFCs are broadly classified into (a) those accepting public deposits and (b) those which do not accept public deposits.
2. One of the advantages of the NBFCs is the low transaction costs for loans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

46. Consider the following statements with respect to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2022–23:

1. The overall worker population ratio (WPR) for persons of all ages in India is 41.1 per cent.
2. The share of self-employed workers is higher in rural areas compared to urban areas in both male and female’s category.
3. Overall unemployment rate is 3.2 per cent for the persons of all ages.

Which of the following statements are correct?

47. Consider the following statements with respect to sugar production in India?

1. India is the world’s largest producer as well as largest exporter of sugar.
2. The Centre announces the fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane while some states also announce state-specific prices for sugarcane.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

48. The pilot project for Public Tech Platform for Frictionless Credit (PTPFC) is launched by the

49. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023:

1. The three broad parameters used in the index are Health, Education, and Sanitation.
2. These parameters are further categorised into six indicators, namely, Nutrition, Child & Adolescent Mortality, Maternal Health, Years of Schooling, School Attendance, and Cooking Fuel.
3. About 135 million people escaped poverty between 2015–16 and 2019–21.

How many statements given above are correct?

50. Which of the following comes under the Capital Receipts?

1. Loans recovered from country X
2. Loans taken from country X
3. Interest received from country X
4. Loans repayment to country X

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

51. Consider the following pairs regarding traditional dance forms:

 How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

52. Who among the following is associated with the Sri Bhasya and the Gita Bhasya, the commentaries on the Vedanta Sutras?

53. Which of the following literature is associated with Pattuppattu, recently mentioned in news?

54. Which of the following literary works are authored by Krishna Deva Raya?

1. Amuktamalyada
2. Jambavati Kalyanam
3. Usha Parinayam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

55. Consider the following statements:

1. Jataka tales depict the future Buddha as elephant.
2. Ajanta caves have paintings portraying Bodhisattvas in tribhanga pose.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

56. Consider the following statements:

1. Bimetallic system of currency for the first time was introduced by Sher Shah Suri.
2. Mughal coins were known for their metallic purity and uniformity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

57. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Al-Biruni approved the Brahmanical description of the caste system.

Statement-II: Al-Biruni’s conception of social pollution, intrinsic to the caste system, was contrary to the laws of nature.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

58. Consider the following statements:

1. Citadel is a common feature of both Harappa and Mohenjo-daro culture.
2. Monuments in Mohenjo-daro symbolised the ability of the ruling class to mobilise labour and collect taxes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

59. Who among the following was actively associated with the Roshaniyya (or Roshani) Movement?

60. Consider the following statements regarding land revenue administration by Sultans of Delhi:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

61. Consider the following films:

1. Meghe Dhaka Tara
2. Tamas
3. Garam Hawa
4. Gora

How many of the above films are associated with the partition of India in 1947?

62. Which of the following features is common in the Telangana Rebellion, Warli Revolt, Tebhaga Movement, and Punnapra-Vayalar Uprising?

63. Consider the following statements regarding the Home Rule Movement:

Statement-I: The movement was a short-lived movement.

Statement-II: Communist riots were witnessed during the same period.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

64. Consider the following pairs:

 How many pairs given above are incorrectly matched?

65. With respect to Indian’s Freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Gandhi’s return to India
2. Lucknow Pact
3. Champaran Satyagraha
4. Formation of Home Rule Leagues

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

66. Which of the following activities is/are permitted under the Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment) Act, 2023?

1. Seaweed culture in creeks
2. Nucleus breeding centres in no development zones
3. Eradication of ambiguities between different aspects of aquaculture

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

67. Consider the following statements regarding Polluter Pays Principle:

1. It is the commonly accepted practice that those who produce pollution should bear the costs of managing it to prevent damage to human health or the environment.
2. It is an integral component of 1992 Rio Declaration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

68. Which of the following is/are the key elements of ‘Panchamrits’ of Indian government with regard to accomplishing COP26 commitments?

1. Reaching 500GW of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030
2. Getting 50 per cent of energy demands from renewable energy by 2030
3. Curbing carbon emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030
4. Reducing economy’s carbon intensity by 45 per cent by 2030, over 2005 levels
5. Obtaining the goal of net zero emissions by 2070

Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

69. Consider the following statements with respect to the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022:

1. The act gives the central as well as state government the authority to design a carbon credit trading scheme.
2. The act specifies energy consumption standards for equipment and appliances including vehicles and vessels like ships and boats.
3. The act mentioned that energy savings, renewable energy, and carbon credit certificates are interchangeable.

How many statements given above are correct?

70. Consider the following statements with respect to energy savings certificates:

1. Renewable Energy Certificates are issued under the Electricity Act, 2003 for promoting renewable energy.
2. Energy Savings Certificates are issued under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 for promoting energy efficiency.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

71. Consider the following statements with respect to cyclones:

1. A cyclone having wind speed exceeding 119 km per hour is termed tropical cyclone.
2. A cyclone having wind speed exceeding 220 km per hour is termed super cyclone.
3. In India, most of the cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal compared to the Arabian Sea region.

How many statements given above are correct?

72. Consider the following pairs with respect to different naming of cyclones:

 How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

73. Arrange the given coal type as per the amount of carbon present in the ascending order.

1. Anthracite
2. Bituminous
3. Lignite
4. Sub-bituminous

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

74. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: White phosphorus munitions can be legally used on battlefields.

Statement-II: White phosphorus is considered as a chemical weapon under Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

75. Consider the following pairs regarding Ramsar sites in India:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

76. Consider the following statements regarding biosparging:

1. It uses microorganisms to reduce pollution through the biological degradation of pollutants into non-toxic substances.
2. It can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents dissolved in groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

77. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The change in the earth orbit cannot be considered as the cause of recent increase in the global temperature.

Statement-II: The change in the earth orbit is too slow to explain the rise of temperature that is observable.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

78. Which among the following is the first state to release caste survey data?

79. Consider the following countries:

1. Argentine Republic
2. Chile
3. Democratic Republic of Ethiopia
4. Iran
5. Saudi Arabia
6. United Arab Emirates

Which of the countries given above are the new members of BRICS (summit held in 2023)?

80. Which of the following organisations is associated with the recent launch of International Pathogen Surveillance Network (IPSN)?

81. Consider the following statements regarding Global Biofuels Alliance:

1. Russia and Brazil are the founding members of this alliance.
2. Singapore is among the observer countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

82. Delta, Beta, and EG.5, sometimes seen in the news, refer to

83. Which of the given statements is incorrect with respect to the recently released India’s National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023?

84. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above given pairs are correctly matched?

85. Which of the following countries has/have the authority to issue International Organization of Legal Metrology (OIML) certificates?

1. India
2. Russia
3. China

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

86. Consider the following countries:

1. Mali
2. Ghana
3. Niger
4. Guinea

How many of the countries mentioned above are associated with the formation of the Alliance of Sahel States (AES) pact?

87. C-TAP, sometimes mentioned in the news, is used in the context of

88. Consider the following statements regarding claustrum:

1. It is hidden beneath the outermost surface of the neocortex in the insula region.
2. It is present in all mammalian species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

89. With respect to lymphocytes, which of the following activities are associated with T cells?

1. Production of Immunoglobulin
2. Rejection of transplanted organs
3. Production of interferon

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

90. Which of the following is common in bluejacking, bluesmacking, and bluesnarfing?

91. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Energy received from the sun is not transported by conduction or convection.

Statement-II: Interplanetary space is a good vacuum.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

92. Consider the following statements regarding facial recognition technology:

1. It is a type of biometric software which stores the data as a faceprint.
2. It uses deep learning algorithms for facial recognition.
3. DigiYatra scheme is based on this technology.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

93. Consider the following statements:

1. Acid content in paper
2. Photosensitised oxidation in the presence of visible light
3. Ultraviolet component of sunlight leading to photolysis of cellulose by direct cleavage of the cellular polymer

How many statements given above are the reasons for paper becoming brittle and yellow with age?

94. Halteria, a microscopic organism, is known for its ability to

95. With reference to visceral leishmaniasis (VL), which one of the following statements is incorrect?

96. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Iodine tablets are used in the event of nuclear accident.

Statement-II: Iodine tablets do not have any side effect.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

97. Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are incorrectly matched?

98. Consider the following:

1. Infrared rays
2. Ultraviolet rays
3. Gamma rays
4. Microwaves rays

Which of the following is the correct ascending order by wavelength?

99. Consider the following elements:

1. Sulphur
2. Sodium
3. Boron
4. Magnesium

How many of the elements given above are used in the formation of the Pyrex glass?

100. Consider the following statements:

1. Movement of water and minerals from earth to leaves of plants through roots is because of the surface tension.
2. Formation of a star in the universe is because of the Bernoulli’s principle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?